[spec] overload subtyping rules are too strict.
The typing spec states that, when A and B are potentially overloaded methods
If a callable
Bis overloaded with two or more signatures, it is assignable to callableAif at least one of the overloaded signatures inBis assignable toAIf a callable
Ais overloaded with two or more signatures, callableBis assignable toAifBis assignable to all of the signatures inA
However, this definition seems to be too strict. Consider the following example:
from typing import Protocol, Self, overload
class IntScalarOurs(Protocol):
def __add__(self, other: int | Self, /) -> Self: ...
class IntScalarTheirs(Protocol):
@overload
def __add__(self, other: int, /) -> Self: ...
@overload
def __add__(self, other: Self, /) -> Self: ...
These two protocols specify the exact same runtime behavior. Yet, following the rules of the spec, IntScalarOurs is assignable to IntScalarTheirs, but IntScalarTheirs is not assignable to IntScalarOurs.
Case 1: A=IntScalarOurs, B=IntScalarTheirs.
If a callable B is overloaded with two or more signatures, it is assignable to callable A if at least one of the overloaded signatures in B is assignable to A
- Is
(self, int) -> Selfassignable to(self, int | Self) -> Self? No, becauseintis not a supertype ofint | Self(contravariance) - Is
(self, Self) -> Selfassignable to(self, int | Self) -> Self? No, becauseSelfis not a supertype ofint | Self(contravariance)
Thus, IntScalarTheirs is not assignable to IntScalarOurs.
Case 2: A=IntScalarTheirs, B=IntScalarOurs.
If a callable A is overloaded with two or more signatures, callable B is assignable to A if B is assignable to all of the signatures in A
- Is
(self, int | Self) -> Selfassignable to(self, int) -> Self? Yes. - Is
(self, int | Self) -> Selfassignable to(self, Self) -> Self? Yes.
Thus, IntScalarOurs is assignable to IntScalarTheirs.
From a pure set-theoretic POV, it seems that subtyping functions should follow a very simply rule based on the domain.
$f <: g$ if and only if $\text{dom}(f) ⊇ \text{dom}(g)$ and $f(x) <: g(x)$ for all $x∈\text{dom}(g)$
What is currently specced appears to be a lemma for a sufficient condition, but not a necessary one. Individual type-checkers can of course use such lemmas if the general case is too difficult to check/implement (and communicate that to their users), but shouldn't the spec be biased towards the theoretically principled point of view, when applicable?
Related Discussions
https://github.com/python/typing/discussions/1782
I think the rule you state is correct. I don't know if we can expect type checkers to implement subtyping for overloads fully "correctly"; it seems quite tricky to implement the rule fully. However, the spec should at least allow the full theoretically correct answer, even if type checkers in practice may not implement the full rule.